(a + 3)(a - 2) multiplying polynomials

Answers

Answer 1
Answer: (a+3)(a-2)
The easyiest but not the only, way to solve this problem is the FOIL method. You first do a*a=a^2 then a*-2=-2a then a*3=3a then 3*-2=-6 then you add it all together a^2-2a+3a-6 then simplify. so the answer is a^2+a-6! Any more questions?

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Answers

well since the area of one screen in 11 ft2 you would times it by 4 which is 44
and 5 which is 55 twice so its actually 154 ft2 
hope this helps
(If I got it wrong plz tell me, I think I got it right, but just in case)

Benford’s law states that the probability that a number in a set has a given leading digit, d, isP(d) = log(d + 1) - log(d).

State which property you would use to rewrite the expression as a single logarithm, and rewrite the logarithm. What is the probability that the number 1 is the leading digit? Explain.

Answers

Benford’s law states that the probability that a number in a set has a given leading digit, d, is
P(d) = log(d + 1) - log(d)
 
The division property of logarithm should be use to make it as a single logarithm  
P(d) = log ( (d + 1)/ d)  
So the probability that the number 1 is the leading digit is
P(1) = log ( ( 1+1)/ 1)
P(1) = log ( 2)
P(1) = 0.301

The probability that the number 1 is the leading digit is0.301.

Given information:

Benford’s law states that the probability that a number in a set has a given leading digitd, is P(d) =\log(d+1)-\log(d)

As mentioned in question,

Probability of a number in a set is given by P(d) =\log(d+1)-\log(d).

The division property of logarithm should be use to make it as a single logarithm P(d)=\log((d+1)/(d))\;\;\;\{\log(a)-\log(b)=\log(a)/(b)\}.

So, the probability that the number 1 is the leading digit is,

P(1) = \log ( ( 1+1)/ 1)\nP(1) = \log ( 2)\nP(1) = 0.301\n

Hence, The probability that the number 1 is the leading digit is 0.301.

Learn more about Probability here:

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How much is 1,000 milligrams in ounces?

Answers

0.035274 ounces  (oz) is the coversion of 1000 miligrams to ounces

Simplify the ratio 40 : 28

Answers

10:7
40 and 28 are both divisible by 4. 40/4 is 10, and 28/4 is 7. 10 and 7 have no common factors, so the ratio is as simple as possible.

Find the first six terms of the sequence. a1 = 4, an = an-1 + 8

OPTIONS ARE
a. 0, 8, 16, 24, 32, 40
b. 12, 20, 28, 36, 44, 52
c. 4, 12, 20, 28, 36, 44
d. 4, 8, 16, 24, 32, 40

Answers

The arithmetic sequence:
a 1 = 4,  a n = a n-1 + 8,  d = 8
a 2 = 4 + 8 = 12
a 3 = 12 + 8 = 20
a 4 = 20 + 8 = 28
a 5 = 28 + 8 = 36
a 6 = 36 + 8 = 44
Answer:
C ) 4, 12, 20, 28, 36, 44

Answer:

(C) 4, 12, 20, 28, 36, 44

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: a_(1)=4 and a_(n)=a_(n-1)+8

To find: Find the first six terms of the sequence

Solution: Since, it is given that a_(1)=4 and a_(n)=a_(n-1)+8, then the first term is 4 and the common difference, d=8.

Thus, the next terms are:

a_(2)=a_(1)+8=4+8=12,

a_(3)=a_(2)+8=12+8=20,

a_(4)=a_(3)+8=10+8=28,

a_(5)=a_(4)+8=28+8=36 and

a_(6)=a_(5)+8=36+8=44

Thus, the first six terms of the sequence will be 4, 12, 20, 28, 36, 44.

thus, option C is correct.

Q1 Use desmos to construct a histogram for the following data set. Thendescribe the shape of the distribution.
** Provide a screenshot of your graph
80, 84, 68, 64, 57, 88, 61, 72, 76, 80, 83, 77, 78, 82, 65, 70, 83,78
73, 79, 70, 62, 69, 66, 79, 80, 86, 82, 73, 75, 71, 81, 74, 83, 77, 73

Answers

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation: