(09.02 HC)The function f(x) = −x2 + 50x − 264 models the profit, in dollars, a yoga studio makes for selling monthly memberships, where x is the number of memberships sold and f(x) is the amount of profit.
Part A: Determine the vertex. What does this calculation mean in the context of the problem? (5 points)
Part B: Determine the x-intercepts. What do these values mean in the context of the problem?
Answers
-(x-25)^2+361
In the form a(x-h)^2+k, the vertex is (h, k), so the vertex is (25, 361). This means that the studio makes the most profit from selling 25 memberships, and thus makes 361 dollars.
B. The x-intercepts are the values of x for which f(x) is 0. This equation can be factored as (-a+6)(a-44)=0, with solutions 6 and 44. Therefore, by selling either 6 memberships or 44 memberships, the studio breaks even, neither making nor losing money.
Answer:
x = 6, x = 44; The zeros represent the number of monthly memberships when no profit is made.
Step-by-step explanation:
I took the quiz and got it right.
Related Questions
20) The total fees f of a book club membership are $10 per month m and a one-timeadministration fee of $4.75.Function rule:How much will it cost for a 15 month membership?
Write each fraction in simplest form.12 over 486 over 15
Framingham Company wants to finance its expansion by selling 200,000 shares of stock at $35.20 each. The underwriting commission will be 5.5 percent of the value of the stock. Accounting, legal, and printing fees are $142,985. What is the total selling expense?
Which is greater 4/6 or 1/6
Answers
Answer:
650
Step-by-step explanation:
Direct proportion
words:minute
100: 1
x:6.5
650=x
hence 650 words
hope this helps :D
Answer:
650
Step-by-step explanation:
100 words in 1 minute
.°. 600 words in 6 minutes
and
100 words in 1 minute
.°. 50 words in 30 secs
.°. total 650 words in 6.5 minutes
Answers
The variation in the yearly salaries can be explained by the differences in employee ages up to40.1%.
When given the correlation coefficient of two variables, you can find out how much of the variation in the dependent variable can be explained by the independent variable by the formula:
= (Correlation coefficient)² x 100%
= 0.633² x 100%
= 0.4007 x 100%
= 40.1%
In conclusion, 40.1% of the variation in salary can be explained by age.
Find out more at brainly.com/question/3560028.
Answer:
The answer is 40.1%
Step-by-step explanation:
I just took the test
Answers
Answer:
4-6x
Step-by-step explanation
Answers
Convert the total length of the pipe from feet to inches.
1 foot = 12 inches.
8 feet x 12 inches = 96 total inches.
96 inches - 85 inches = 11 inches are left over.
Final answer:
After converting the length of an 8-foot copper pipe to inches, we find it is 96 inches long. Ralph used 85 inches of the pipe, leaving 11 inches of the copper pipe leftover.
Explanation:
Ralph bought an 8-foot long copper pipe. Initially, we need to convert the length of the pipe from feet to inches since the part used is given in inches. 1 foot equals 12 inches, so an 8-foot pipe is 8 * 12 = 96 inches long. Ralph used 85 inches of the pipe. So, to find out how much is left over, we subtract the amount used from the total length of the pipe: 96 inches - 85 inches = 11 inches. Therefore, Ralph has 11 inches of copper pipe left over.
Learn more about Length Conversion here:
#SPJ12
Answers
Answer:
A= 48°
B=60°
C=72°
D=20°
E=20°
F= 160°
G=160°
Step-by-step explanation:
Take a look at the picture above. (please excuse me for the sloppyish writing lol)
Answer: