You are choosing between two health clubs. Club A offers membership for a fee of $ 14 $14 plus a monthly fee of $ 15. $15.  Club B offers membership for a fee of $ 18 $18 plus a monthly fee of $ 14. $14.  After how many months will the total cost of each health club be the​ same? What will be the total cost for each​ club?

Answers

Answer 1
Answer:

Answer:

After 4 months total cost of each health club would be the​ same that is $74.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x represent number of months.

We have been given that Club A offers membership for a fee of $14 plus a monthly fee of $15.

The total cost of using Club A for x months would be 15x+14.

We have been given that Club B offers membership for a fee of $18 plus a monthly fee of $14.

The total cost of using Club B for x months would be 14x+18.

Let us equate both equations to find number of months, when both health clubs cost would be same.

15x+14=14x+18

15x-14x+14=14x-14x+18

x+14=18

x+14-14=18-14

x=4

Therefore, after 4 months the total cost of each health club would be the​ same.

The total cost of using Club A: 15(4)+14=60+14=74

The total cost of using Club B: 14(4)+18=56+18=74

Therefore, the total cost for each club would be $74.


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A line drawn from one corner of a rectangle to the opposite corner is called

Answers

The corner of a rectangle is called the vertex of the rectangle.

Joining any two adjacent vertices is the side of the rectangle.

Joining any two vertices which are opposite to each other is called a diagonal of the rectangle.

The length of both the diagonals of a rectangle is always equal.

Final answer:

A line drawn from one corner of a rectangle to the opposite corner is called a diagonal in mathematics. It's a vector contains two components: the x-component and the y-component that are parallel to the x-axis and y-axis, respectively.

Explanation:

In the field of mathematics, a line drawn from one corner of a rectangle to the opposite corner is referred to as a diagonal. This line is equivalent to a vector that encompasses two components. The x-component Ax is the side of the rectangle that is parallel to the x-axis and the y-component Ay is the side parallel to the y-axis. To visualize it, consider a rectangle with corners A, B, C, and D. Draw a line from corner A to corner C. This line is the diagonal of the rectangle.

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What is 4 1/6 minus 2 5/6

Answers

4 (1)/(6) -2 (5)/(6) =3+1 (1)/(6) -2 (5)/(6) =3-2+ (7)/(6) - (5)/(6) =1 (2)/(6) =1 (1)/(3)
1 2/6 or 1 1/3 would b ur answer (ther both th same!!)

Can someone please help!! Idk what to do.

Answers

Answer:

3948 members

Step-by-step explanation:

SInce a is the initial amount, a = 2000. b represents growth factor, and the amount increases by 12% every year, so b = 1.12. Since you want to find the value in 6 years, x= 6. Therefore your equation is y = 2000 • 1.12 ^ 6. Plug it into your calculator and you get y =  3947.64, and since they are people you round up to 3948 members.

A pharmaceutical company knows that approximately 5% of its birth-control pills have an ingredient that is below the minimum strength, thus rendering the pill ineffective. What is the probability that fewer than 10 in a sample of 200 pills will be ineffective

Answers

Answer:

The probability that fewer than 10 in a sample of 200 pills will be ineffective is 0.4364

∴ P(X<10)=0.4364

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that the total number of sample pills is 200

ie., n=200

To find  the probability that fewer than 10 in a sample of 200 pills will be ineffective:

Let us assume it success if a pill is ineffective.

The probability of success in each trial is p=5\%

p=5\%

p=(5)/(100)

=0.05

∴ p=0.05

We know that the total probability is p+q=1

The probability of failure is q

q=1-p

q=1-0.05

∴ q=0.95

Let X be the random variable of the number of ineffective pills in a sample of 200 pills.

Hence X has Binomial distribution with parameter n=200 and p=0.05

The formula for Mean in Binomial distribution is

\mu=np

Substitute the values in the above formula we get

\mu=200(0.05)

\mu=10

The formula for Standard deviation in Binomial distribution is

\sigma=√(npq)

Substitute the values in the above formula we get

\sigma=√((200)(0.05)(0.95))

=√(9.5)

=3.082

\sigma=3.082

Now we have to find the probability that fewer than 10 in a sample of 200 pills will be ineffective.

That is to find the area to the left of x=9.5

The formula is z=(x-\mu)/(\sigma)

Substitute the values in the formula we get

z=(9.5-10)/(3.082)

=(-0.5)/(3.082)

=-0.16

z=-0.16

Now P(X<10)=P(Z<-0.16)

=0.4364

∴ P(X<10)=0.4364

Therefore the probability that fewer than 10 in a sample of 200 pills will be ineffective is 0.4364

Final answer:

The probability that fewer than 10 out of 200 birth-control pills will be ineffective is approximately 0.817, or 81.7%.

Explanation:

Probability is a mathematical concept used to quantify the likelihood of an event occurring. It ranges from 0 (impossible) to 1 (certain). It plays a crucial role in statistics and decision-making, helping to predict outcomes, assess risk, and make informed choices. To find the probability that fewer than 10 in a sample of 200 birth-control pills will be ineffective, we can use the binomial probability formula:

P(X < 10) = Σ (n choose k) * p^k * (1-p)^(n-k), where:

n = sample size = 200,

k = number of ineffective pills,

p = probability of a pill being ineffective = 0.05.

Calculating this probability using the formula, we get:

P(X < 10) ≈ 0.817, or 81.7%.

Learn more about Probability here:

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What is the inverse operation of division?A. All mathematical operations
B. Subtraction
C. Division has no inverse operation.
D. Multiplication

Answers

The answer is D, Multiplication
the answer would be d

I was doing my math homework and I was clueless when it came to this question, my best friend and I both came up with 30 and Get More Math Said it was incorrect. Can you help?

Answers

Yes, where is the question?