Answer: The answer is ($76,280,000)
Explanation:
POAR = Budgeted Overhead / Budgeted labour cost
Total direct labour cost = hours worked × wage rate per hour
Hours worked = 2,500 hours , wage rate per hour = $20
= 2,500 × 20
= $50,000
Budgeted Overhead = $1,500,000, Budgeted labour cost = $50,000
= 1,500,000 / 50,000
= 30 × actual activity
Actual activity direct labour = 618,000 +577,000 + 310,000 + 730,000 + 328,000 + 31,000 = 2,596,000
Overhead absorbed = 30 × 2,596,000
= 77,880,000
Actual Overhead = 1,600,000
Actual Overhead - Overhead absorbed
= 1,600,000 - 77,880,000
= ($76,280,000)
Since the overhead absorbed is greater than actual overhead, this is known as over absorption.
Answer: 12.2%
Explanation:
Given the variables available, the required rate of return can be computed using the Capital Asset Pricing Model with the formula;
Required Return = Risk-free rate + beta ( Market risk premium)
Required return = 4.25% + 1.4 * 5.5%
Required return = 4.25% + 7.7%
Required return = 12.2%
Note; The actual question says the Risk-free rate is 4.25%.
Answer:
Also a hard skill.
Explanation:
A hard skill is something that you have to learn.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "A": The convenience yield is always positive or zero.
Explanation:
The convenience yield reflects the premium of possessing an asset instead of one of its derivates or contracts. This situation arises in front of inverted markets, where holding the asset itself may bring more profits than purchasing a derivate of the same asset.
The convenience yield tends to be positive or zero because the prices of assets cannot fall below zero. In other words, they are not negative.
convenience yield is a benefit of owning a physical asset over a futures contract. The yield is typically positive or zero. In the context of investment and consumption assets, the yield assumptions may vary.
The question is focusing on the concept of convenience yield in finance and its relationship with investment and consumption assets. Convenience yield is the non-monetary advantage or benefit that a holder gets from owning a physical good or an asset over a futures contract on that asset. If you decide to hold an asset as opposed to a futures contract on the asset, it means because the net benefits – that is the benefits from holding the asset, minus the benefits of holding the contract – must be nonzero. Therefore, option A is correct: The convenience yield is always positive or zero.
Moreover, for an investment asset, which is purchased with the hope that it will generate income or appreciate in value, the convenience yield is generally assumed to be zero because holding it delivers no utility beyond the financial returns it provides. So option B is not always true. The convenience yield being negative for a consumption asset, an asset purchased for current use, is also unlikely (option C is incorrect). Such a negative value would suggest that owning the asset is somehow disadvantageous - which contradicts the reason for purchasing a consumption asset. Lastly, the convenience yield does not measure the average return earned on futures contracts, therefore option D is also incorrect.
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Answer: $104,360
Explanation:
The cash collections for June will be;
= June Cash sales + (50 % *June credit sales ) + (43% * May credit sales) + ( 5% of April credit sales)
= 58,000 + (0.5 * 55,000) + (0.43 * 42,000) + ( 0.05 * 16,000)
= 58,000 + 27,500 + 18,060 + 800
= $104,360
Answer:
The correct answer is 35%.
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the computation of the given data are as follows:
We can calculate the Weighted average contribution margin ratio by using following formula:
weighted-average contribution margin ratio = (Contribution margin ratio × Sales of sporting goods) + (Contribution margin ratio × Sales of sporting gears)
= ( 30 × 75% ) + ( 50 × 25%)
= 22.5% + 12.5%
= 35%
b. Cash receipts from sales, $264,000.
c. Budgeted cash disbursements for purchases, $138,000.
d. Budgeted cash disbursements for salaries, $80,000.
e. Other budgeted expenses, $15,000.
f. Cash repayment of bank loan, $10,000.
g. Budgeted depreciation expense, $25,000.
Answer:
$47,000
Explanation:
The cash budget is a forecast of the company's expected movement in cash considering the expected outflows and inflows. This movements result in a change between the opening and ending cash balance. This may be expressed mathematically as
Opening balance + Cash receipts - Cash disbursed = ending balance
Cash receipts for the period
= $264,000
Cash disbursed
= $138,000 + $80,000 + $10,000 + $15,000
= $243,000
ending balance = $26,000 + $264,000 - $243,000
= $47,000