Answer:
1. Accounts Payable will flow to the balance sheet because it is a liability account.
2. Accounts Receivable will flow to the balance sheet because it is an asset account.
3. Cash will flow in the balance sheet as it is an asset for the company.
4. Eddy Rosewood, Drawing will flow into Statement of owner's equity
5. Fees Earned will flow in the Income Statement
6. Supplies belong in the income statement as it is an expense account.
7. Unearned rent will flow in the balance sheet as it is a liability account.
8. Utility Expense will flow in the balance sheet as it is an expense account.
9. Wages Expense will flow in the income statement as it is an expense account.
10. Wages payable will flow in the balance sheet as it is a liability account.
Answer:
It's actually balance sheet for Supplies.
Explanation:
Answer:
From all indications,it is very clear that the question requires a journal entry to record the unpaid interest.
Dr Interest expense $1125
Cr Interest payable $1125
Explanation:
This is a typical case of an omitted entry in the books of accounts,specifically it relates year-end close accounting adjustments.
Under the accrual basis, which is prevalent in the private sector,expenses are to recorded when incurred not when they are settled in cash,as result it is imperative that the above transaction needs be adjusted by debiting interest expense account and crediting same amount to interest payable account to affirm that the company has an obligation to $1125 to mortgage providers.
Answer: internally homogenous
Explanation:
Since the potential customers belong to the same segment, display comparable characteristics, and choose the same product qualities that are consistent with their segment, then the condition for the ideal market segment approach which should be used is the internally homogeneous.
On the other hand, if the potential customers are in different segments, have different characteristics, and choose different product qualities, then the externally homogeneous will be ideal.
internally homogenous
Rating
Default Risk Premium
U.S. Treasury —
AAA 0.60%
AA 0.80%
A 1.05%
BBB 1.45%
National Transmissions Corp. issues thirteen-year, AA-rated bonds. What is the yield on one of these bonds? (Hint: Disregard cross-product terms; that is, if averaging is required, use an arithmetic average.)
10.58%
11.78%
6.00%
2. Based on your understanding of the determinants of interest rates, if everything else remains the same, which of the following will be true?
A) The yield on a AAA-rated bond will be lower than the yield on a AA-rated bond.
B) The yield on a AAA-rated bond will be higher than the yield on a BB-rated bond.
Answer:
Answer for the question:
"1. The real risk-free rate (r*) is 2.80% and is expected to remain constant into the future. Inflation is expected to be 6.80% per year for each of the next two years and 5.60% thereafter.
The maturity risk premium (MRP) is determined from the formula: 0.10 x (t – 1)%, where t is the security’s maturity. The liquidity premium (LP) on all National Transmissions Corp.’s bonds is 1.20%. The following table shows the current relationship between bond ratings and default risk premiums (DRP):
Rating
Default Risk Premium
U.S. Treasury —
AAA 0.60%
AA 0.80%
A 1.05%
BBB 1.45%
National Transmissions Corp. issues thirteen-year, AA-rated bonds. What is the yield on one of these bonds? (Hint: Disregard cross-product terms; that is, if averaging is required, use an arithmetic average.)
10.58%
11.78%
6.00%
2. Based on your understanding of the determinants of interest rates, if everything else remains the same, which of the following will be true?
A) The yield on a AAA-rated bond will be lower than the yield on a AA-rated bond.
B) The yield on a AAA-rated bond will be higher than the yield on a BB-rated bond."
is explained in the attachment.
Explanation:
The yield on National Transmissions Corp.'s thirteen-year, AA-rated bond is 12.20%. Additionally, a AAA-rated bond will have a lower yield than a AA-rated bond due to lower default risk.
To calculate the yield on the bond, we take into account the real risk-free rate (r*), the inflation rate, the default risk premium (DRP), the maturity risk premium (MRP), and the liquidity premium (LP). Note that the inflation rate is given for two different periods, so we take the average of the two (6.80% and 5.60%).
The formula to calculate yield is: r = r* + Inflation rate + MRP + DRP + LP
Hence, the yield on the bond = 2.80% + 6.20% + 1.20% + 0.80% + 1.20% = 12.20%.
For part 2 of the question, the statement A) is correct. The yield of a AAA-rated bond will be lower than that of a AA-rated bond because the default risk of AAA-rated bond is less, hence a lower default risk premium is required.
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The condition of exchange that is being met when Small describes how his customers choose to purchase his clothes (by evaluating that his brand is environmentally conscientious, whereas most other brands are not) is that each party believes it is appropriate or desirable to deal with the other party.
Answer:
Number of Shares for Basic Earnings per Share = 3,000,000
Number of Shares for Diluted Earnings per Share = 3,200,000
Explanation:
Basic Earnings per Share = Earnings Attributable to Holders of Common Stock / Weighted Average Number of Common Shares
Weighted Average Number of Common Shares
Common Shares Outstanding - December 31, year 1 2,500,000
April 1, Year 2 Issue, 9/12× 500,000 375,000
July 1, Year 2 Issue, 6/12× 250,000 125,000
Number of Shares for Basic Earnings per Share 3,000,000
Diluted Earnings per Share =Adjusted Earnings Attributable to Holders of Common Stock /Adjusted Weighted Average Number of Common Shares
Adjusted Weighted Average Number of Common Shares
Number of Shares for Basic Earnings per Share 3,000,000
Add 7% convertible bonds (5,000×40 shares) 200,000
Number of Shares for Diluted Earnings per Share 3,200,000
To compute basic earnings per share (EPS) and diluted earnings per share for the year ended December 31, year 2, we need to consider the weighted average number of shares outstanding during the year. The number of shares to be used in computing basic EPS would be 2,500,000 for the first three months, then 3,000,000 for the next six months, and finally 3,250,000 for the last three months. For diluted EPS, we would use the same number of shares as the basic EPS calculation.
To compute basic earnings per share (EPS), we need to consider the weighted average number of shares outstanding during the year. For this, we calculate the number of months each share was outstanding and then multiply it by the number of shares for that period. The number of shares to be used in computing basic EPS would be 2,500,000 for the first three months, then 3,000,000 (2,500,000 + 500,000) for the next six months, and finally 3,250,000 (2,500,000 + 500,000 + 250,000) for the last three months.
For diluted EPS, we need to consider the potential dilutive effect of convertible bonds. Since no bonds were converted into common stock, the number of shares to be used in computing diluted EPS would be the same as the basic EPS calculation.
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Answer:
$494,918
Explanation:
For computation of net present value we need to follow some steps which is shown below:-
After tax cost of debt = Pretax cost of debt × (1 - tax rate)
=5.58% × (1 - 0.4)
= 3.348%
debt ÷ equity
= Debt - equity ratio
Hence debt = 0.59 equity
Assume the equity be $x
Debt = $0.59x
Total = $1.59x
WACC = Respective costs × Respective weights
= (x ÷ 1.59x × 11.25%) + (0.59x ÷ 1.59x × 3.348)
= 8.318%
Present value of annuity = Annuity × (1 - (1 + interest rate)^ - time period] ÷ Rate
=1.63 × [1 - (1.08317811321)^-7]÷ 0.08317811321
= $1.63 × 5.150256501
=$8,394,918.10
Net present value = Present value of cash inflows - Present value of cash outflows
= $8,394,918.10 - $7,900,000
= $494,918