MATHEMATICS HIGH SCHOOL

15+ Points, Plus Brainliest if your right!A summer camp has 20 boys and 20 girls. Each day, all camper names are put in a hat, and one name is drawn to receive a prize. What are the odds in favor of boys names being drawn on three out of three nights?
A. ) 1:1
B. ) 1:7
C. ) 1:8
D. ) 7:1

Answers

Answer 1
Answer:

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Because there are a same number of boys and girls, the odds are 20:20 which can be simplified to 1:1

Hope that helps
Answer 2
Answer:

Once again the answer is A

Bye have a great time :D

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The temperature dropped by −2.5 Celsius degrees for 5 consecutive days. What was the total decrease in temperature over the 5-day period, expressed as a signed number? 

Answers

If the temperature dropped by -2.5 for 5 days, then multiply -2.5 and 5 to get the total decrease. 
(-2.5)(5) = -12.5
Over the 5-day period, the temperature dropped by -12.5 degrees Celsius. 
Hope that helps!!
-12.5


20 charrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrrr

Order the following units of capacity from least to greatest:gallon,pint,cup,quart

Answers

The order of the given units from least to greatest is

cup < pint < quart < gallon

What is unit conversion?

Unit conversion is a process with multiple steps that involves multiplication or division by a numerical factor or, particularly a conversion factor.

According to the given question.

We have different units gallon, pint, cup and quart of volume.

For arranging the above units from least to greatest we use unit conversion.

Since,

1 gallon = 16 cups

1 quart = 4 cups

and

1 pint = 2 cups

So, we have converted all the units in cups.

Hence, the order of the given units from least to greatest is

cup < pint < quart < gallon

Find out more information about unit conversion here:

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First you would have a cup, then you would have a pint, then a quart, and finally a gallon.
I hope I helped you

Is it possible to express every decimal as a fraction (without rounding)? Why or why not?

Answers

Yes, you would just have to change the denominator. For example, .2 would be 2/10 and .201 would be 201/1000. A good rule of thumb is to use place value.

. ____2____ _____0_____ ______1_____
      tenths     hundredths     thousandths

Since the last place value is thousandths my denominator is going to be in the thousands. 
If the decimal ends, then always yes.
When you read the decimal, you call it some number of
tenths, or hundredths, or thousandths, or millionths etc.,
and what you call it when you read it consists of the same
words you use when it's written as a fraction.

If the decimal never ends but just keeps going on forever,
then ...
---  if the same group of digits repeats over and over, (as they do in the
decimal form of 1/3, 1/7, and 1/9), then the decimal can be expressed
as a fraction, even though the decimal never ends.
--  if a group of digits doesn't repeat, (as in 'pi' or 'e' for example), then
the decimal is an irrational number  The definition of an irrational number
is one that can't be expressed as a fraction.

A game spinner has regions that are numbered 1 through 9. If the spinner is used twice, what is the probability that the first number is a 3 and the second is a 5?

Answers

On the first spin, the probability that any specific number from 1 to nine inclusive is 1/9. On the second spin, the same value of probability applies. If the spinner is fair, the result from the first spin has no effect on the result of the second spin. therefore:
P(3\ then\ 5)=(1)/(9)*(1)/(9)=(1)/(81)

Final answer:

The probability that the spinner lands on 3 in the first spin and 5 in the second spin is 1 out of 81, given that each spin is independent and the spinner has numbers 1 through 9.

Explanation:

The question is asking about the probability of getting a 3 followed by a 5 on a spinner with numbers 1 through 9. Since the outcomes of spinning are independent, the probability of both events happening is the product of their individual probabilities.

Now, since the spinner has numbers 1 through 9, the probability of landing on any specific number is 1/9. Therefore, the probability of landing on 3 in the first spin is 1/9. In the second spin, the probability of landing on 5 is also 1/9.

To find the combined probability of both these events happening, you need to multiply the individual probabilities together. So, in this case, P(3 and 5) = P(3) * P(5) = 1/9 * 1/9 = 1/81. So the probability of the spinner landing on 3 in the first spin and then 5 in the second spin is 1 out of 81.

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What is 1000 times 4726282

Answers

Just add 3 zero's to the current number, it's that simple :) 

Thus, 4 726 282 000

Answer: 4726282000

Step-by-step explanation: because 1000x4726282=  4726282000

A new restaurant is having advertising flyers printed. The cost to design and lay out the flyer is $300. There is an additional cost of $0.12 per flyer printed. Identify the fixed cost and the variable cost of the partial variation.
(2 marks)

Fixed cost (b) = _________ Variable cost (m) = ___________

Write the equation representing this relationship in the form y=mx+b.
(1 mark)

c)Use your equation in (b) to determine the total cost of 300 flyers.
(2 marks)

Answers

Answer:

Fixed cost (b) = $300

Variable cost (m) = $0.12

y = 0.12(x) + 300

y = 0.12(300) + 300

y = 36 + 300

y = 336 flyers

Step-by-step explanation:
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