MATHEMATICS MIDDLE SCHOOL

What is 1/6 of 42
How to solve it

Answers

Answer 1
Answer:

The fraction 1/6 of 42 is equal to 7.

We have,

To find 1/6 of 42, you can multiply 42 by 1/6.

To do this calculation, you can use the following steps:

- Multiply 42 by 1/6:

= (42) x (1/6)

= 42/6

- Simplify the fraction, if possible:

42/6 can be simplified by dividing both the numerator and denominator by their greatest common divisor, which is 6:

42/6 = (6 x 7) / (6 x 1) = 7/1 = 7

Therefore,

1/6 of 42 is equal to 7.

Learn more about fractions here:

brainly.com/question/24370499

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Answer 2
Answer: You would just divide it by 6 wich maked is 7

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joe correctly answered 70% of the questions on a test. there were 50 questions. how many questions did joe answer correctly?

Answers

your answer is 35 because you do 35 divided by 50 which equals 0.7 starting from the decimal, move two spaces to the right and you will get 70%
                    .70 *50 =35 .......

How many 1/4 inch tiles would Colby need to cover the top of the box?

Answers

if it is a full 1 inch then he would need 4...
1/4+1/4+1/4+1/4=2/4+2/4= 4/4= 1
4 is the final answer
if this helped then plz mark as brainliest and thank :)

Find the total surface area of the following cone. Leave your answer in terms of pi.

Answers

Answer:

90π cm²

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: Radius of circular base= 5 cm

           height= 12 cm

   

Now finding the surface of cone.

Formula; Surface area of cone= \pi rl+ B

Where; r= radius

l= slant height

B is the area of base, which is circle.

Area of circle (B)= πr²

Area of circle (B)= \pi * 5^(2) = 25\pi

∴ Area of circle (B)= 25\pi

Finding slant height (l)

Formula; l= \sqrt{r^(2)+h^(2)  }

⇒l = \sqrt{5^(2)+12^(2)  } = √(25+144 )

∴ l= √(169) = 13\ cm

Next, using the formula for finding surface area of cone.

Surface area of cone= 5* 13* \pi + 25\pi

⇒ Surface area of cone= 65\pi +25\pi = 90\pi

∴ Surface area of cone= 90π cm²

Answer:

S.A. = 90 pi cm2

Step-by-step explanation:

1. pi(3.14) x radius(5) x slant height(13) = 90

What number is the same as thirty one and eight hundred eighty thousandths

Answers

8,831?
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A car travels 1/6 of the distance between two cities in 3/5 of an hour. At this rate, what fraction of the distance between the two cities can the car travel in 1 hour.

Answers

If you can drive 1/6 of the distance every 3/5 of an hour, to find how much of the distance you can drive in 1 hour, you would first figure out what you would have to multiply by 3/5 hr to get 1 hr.
3/5x = 1
x = 1÷3/5 (1 · 5/3)
x = 5/3
Then, you multiply 1/6 by 5/3
1/6 · 5/3 = 5/18
So, in one hour, you can drive 5/18 of the distance

How do i turn 24% into a fraction

Answers

You can remove the % sign if you divide the number by 100:

(24)/(100)


This is because % is defined as 1/100, and the name (per-cent) actually meant this originally!
we can also simplify it: let's divide it by 4:

(6)/(25)
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