40+40x0+1=
What is the correct answer?
Answers
The correct answer will be 41.
A mathematical term is given ; 40 + 40 × 0 + 1
What will be the correct answer ?
What is the PEMDAS rule ?
PEMDAS rule follows the order which is parentheses, exponents, multiplication, division, addition, subtraction.
The given mathematical term is ;
= 40 + 40 × 0 + 1
We need to solve the given mathematical term according to the PEMDAS rule . Here , we firstly need to multiply 40 with 0 and then add rest of the values.
⇒ 40 + 40 × 0 + 1
firstly solve , 40 × 0 ;
= 40 + 0 + 1
then addall terms ;
= 41
Thus , the correct answer will be 41.
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40 + (40 x 0) + 1
40 + (0) + 1
41
Answer is: 41
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The area of triangle B is 25 times greater than the area of triangle A.The perimeter of triangle B is how many times greater than the perimeter of triangle A?
Answers
Final answer:
To find the rate at which the lawn sprinkler would fill the pool if used alone, subtract the rate of the hose from the combined rate. The equation is rs = 1/5 - 1/8.
Explanation:
To determine the rate at which the lawn sprinkler would fill the pool if used alone, we can set up an equation using the concept of rates. Let r be the rate at which the sprinkler fills the pool. If it takes 8 minutes for Byron to fill the pool with just the hose, then the rate of the hose alone is 1 pool/8 minutes, or rh = 1/8. If it takes 5 minutes to fill the pool when both the hose and sprinkler are used together, then the combined rate is 1 pool/5 minutes, or rc = 1/5.
The rate of the sprinkler alone, rs, can be determined by subtracting the rate of the hose from the combined rate. Thus, we have rs = rc - rh. Substituting the given values, we have rs = 1/5 - 1/8.
Therefore, the equation that can be used to determine the rate at which the lawn sprinkler would fill the pool if used alone is rs = 1/5 - 1/8.
Learn more about Rate of filling pool with hose and sprinkler here:
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Answers
Adds to 0.6 =
-0.6 + (1.2) = 1.2 - 0.6 = 0.6.
Hence the two numbers are -0.6 and 1.2.
Answers
x 3 8 0
0 0 0
2 2 4 0
+ 8 4 0
1 0 6 4 0 0
So, 280 x 380 = 106400
1st- put the #'s on top of each other
280
380
2nd- since both of them have 0's when done just add two 0
3- take out zeros HAVE TO BE AT END OF #
4- now ur problem is 28 • 38
5- put #'s on top of each other
28
38
6- multiply 8 by 8 and then 2 by 8
28
38
____
4 take 6 to the top of 2
6
28
38
_____
224 2 times 8=16 add 6 to 16= 16+6= 22
Then put a 0 under the 4 because we are not adding anything to that 4
Then do
28
38
28•3
You get 84
28
38
_____
224
84*put 84 in remaing places
Add those two togethed
224+84= 308
Then add two zeros
30800
Add a comma
30,800 is ur finale answer
Answers
You start out with (6 + 5 + 2) = 13 marbles in the hat.
You accidentally knock the hat off the table, they all roll out
onto the floor, and you have lost all of your marbles.
You pick them up, put them back in the hat, put the hat back
on the table, and you still have 13 marbles in the hat.
The probability of pulling an orange marble without looking is
(number of orange ones) / (total number of marbles) = 2/13 .
Now there are only 12 marbles left in the hat. If the first draw
was successful, then there's only 1 orange marble left in there.
The probability of pulling that one without looking is
(number of orange ones) / (total number of marbles) = 1/12 .
So the probability of BOTH events happening is
( 2/13 ) x ( 1/12 ) = 2/156 = 1/78 .
That's the answer in fraction form, like the question wants it.
That fraction is roughly equal to 1.28 % .
6 brown marbles
5 blue marbles
2 orange marbles.
Question:-
What is the probability of picking two orange marbles in a row without returning the marbles back to the hat?
Solve:-
First add all the marbles:-
6 + 5 + 2 = 13
13 marbles in total.
Now lets write the 1st probability:-
2 orange
13 together
2nd probability:-
13 - 1 = 12
1 orange (left)
12 total (without putting back)
Hope i helped ya!! xD
Answers
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
The formula for simple interest is prt = I, where p is the initial investment (our unknown in this case), r is the interest rate in decimal form, t is the time in years, and I is the interest earned. That is NOT the same as the amount of money in the account t years later.
For us,
p = ??,
r = .05,
t = 18, and
I = 225.
Filling in:
p(.05)(18) = 225 and
.9p = 225 so
p = 250
Answer:
The answer is $250.
Step-by-step explanation:
First, the money that his grandmother deposited is called the principal, P. Substitute the given values into the formula, interest equals principal times rate times time, and solve for P. Here, I is 225 dollars and t is 18 years.
Next, the percent given represents the interest rate, r, but first it must be changed to a decimal. To change it, move the decimal point 2 places to the left.
Now, multiply point 0, 5, and 18 to simplify the right side of the equation. The product is point nine.
Finally, divide both sides of the equation by .9 . The result is P equals $225 The principal, or original deposit, is $250.
Answers
(x-h)^2=4p(y-k)
vertex is (h,k)
distance from vertex to directix=p=distance from vertex to focus
|4p|=focal width
remember, focus is on the side of the parabola where it opens and directix is at the back
when p is negative, it opens down
when p is positive, it opens up
look at equation
-1/40(x-0)^2=(y-0)
times -40 to both sides
(x-0)^2=-40(y-0)
(x-0)^2=4(-10)(y-0)
vertex=(0,0)
p=-10,it's negative so it opens down
focus is 10 units below vertex (y direction)
focus=(0,-10)
diretix is 10 above
directix is y=10
focal width=|4p|=|4(-10)|=|-40|=40
vertex=(0,0)
focus=(0,-10)
directix is y=10
focal width=40 units