Iron filings sprinkled near a magnet arrange themselves into a pattern that illustrates the _____.magnetic poles
magnetic field
magnetic domain
magnetic alignment

Answers

Answer 1
Answer: Iron filings sprinkled near a magnet arrange themselves into pattern that illustrate the Magnetic fields. Magnetic fields are both about illustrate electric currents and magnetic materials. That's the reason why the iron filings arranges themselves into pattern when sprinkled near a magnet.
Answer 2
Answer: magnetic filed hope it helps

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CONSIDER A TRAIN WHICH CAN ACCELERATION OF 20CM/SEC AND SLOW DOWN WITH ACCELERATION OF 100 CM/SEC FIND THE MINIMUM TIME FOR TRAIN TO TRAVEL BETWEEN THE STATIONS 2.7 KM PER A PART

Answers

The train accelerates at the rate of 20 for some time, until it's just exactly
time to put on the brakes, decelerate at the rate of 100, and come to a
screeching stop after a total distance of exactly 2.7 km.

The speed it reaches while accelerating is exactly the speed it starts decelerating from.

Speed reached while accelerating = (acceleration-1) (Time-1) = .2 time-1

Speed started from to slow down = (acceleration-2) (Time-2) = 1 time-2  

The speeds are equal.
.2 time-1 = 1 time-2
time-1 = 5 x time-2

It spends 5 times as long speeding up as it spends slowing down.

The distance it covers speeding up = 1/2 A (5T)-squared
= 0.1 x 25 T-squared = 2.5 T-squared.

The distance it covers slowing down = 1/2 A (T-squared)
= 0.5 T-squared.

Total distance = 2,700 meters.
(2.5 + .5) T-squared = 2,700
T-squared = 2700/3 = 900

T = 30 seconds

The train speeds up for 150 seconds, reaching a speed of 30 meters per sec
and covering 2,250 meters. 
It then slows down for 30 seconds, covering 450 meters.

Total time = 180 sec = 3 minutes, minimum.

Observation:
This solution is worth more than 5 points.
This can be done by hit and trial easily.

Considering train accelerate for 13000s and deaccelerate for 1000s
so total distance covered is = 20cm/s * 13000s + 100cm/s*100s
= (260000 + 10000 )cm
= 270000cm
= 2.7km

So total time taken is - 13100 seconds

What is the unit of work? Explain whether the unit of work is a fundamental uintor derived unit
1.
What do you mean by a unit?
2.
unit or a derived unit.
are the fundamental units used in physics?
al Bureau of Weights and Me​

Answers

Answer:

1)the unit of work is joule. 2)it is derived unit because it is made by two different unit force and displacement .3)

What type of interference results in beats?constructive
destructive
negligible
interference is not involved in the creation of beats

Answers

Answer: constructive

Explanation:

Two waves having slightly different frequencies when interfere constructively produce beats. Superposition of these two waves results in addition of amplitudes of the two waves. The amplitude of the resultant wave vibrates or beats.

Beat frequency is given by the absolute difference between the frequencies of the two waves.

b = |f₂ - f₁| = f₂ - f₁ or f₂ + f₁

The answer is A Constructive.

A train leaves the station at the 0.0m marker traveling with a constant velocity of 45.0 m/s. How manyseconds later will the train pass the 1500.Om marker? What is the velocity of the train in km/h?

Answers

The train will pass the 1500.0m marker 33.33 seconds after leaving the station. Its velocity is 162.0 km/h.

How to evaluate time the train will pass the 1500.0m marker and it's velocity

To find the time it takes for the train to pass the 1500.0m marker, we can use the formula: time = distance / velocity. Plugging in the values,

time = 1500.0m / 45.0 m/s

time = 33.33 seconds.

To convert the velocity from m/s to km/h, we use the conversion factor: 1 m/s = 3.6 km/h. Therefore,

velocity = 45.0 m/s * 3.6 km/h/m/s

velocity = 162.0 km/h.

In summary, the train will pass the 1500.0m marker approximately 33.33 seconds after departing the station, and its velocity will be 162.0 km/h

Read more about velocity here: here:brainly.com/question/80295

#SPJ3

Answer:

119.88 km/h

Explanation:

1500/45=33.3

use a m/s to km/h calculator

put in 33.3 for m/s and you will get 119.88 km/h.

119.88 km/h.

The closer together a magnets field lines are,

Answers

the stronger they will be

How does is the terminal velocity of a feather different from the terminal velocity of an egg?

Answers

if under vacuum the terminal velocity of the egg and feather would be the same because only the acceleration due to gravity is only force acting on it. but at normal condition, their terminal velocity are different because to wind resistance and shape factor that will contribute resistance of an object to go down.

Answer:

The terminal velocities will be the same in a vacuum and different for the egg and further.

Explanation:

Thinking process:

The terminal velocity is the maximum velocity that an object can attain after overcoming the resistance caused by the atmosphere or air. In other words, the velocity equation is given as:

F_(net)  = D -W

where F is the net force,

D = Drag force

W = Weight of the object falling down.

The drag force increases by the increase with the square of the velocity like this:

W = C_(d) \frac{\rhoV^(2)A  } {2}

The terminal velocity is given by the equation:

V = Sqrt (2W/CdpA)

In the absence of friction, like a vacuum, the velocities are the same.

In the atmosphere, there is drag, and the velocities are different.