The following account balances were drawn from the financial statements of Grayson Company: Cash $ 5,000 Accounts payable $ 1,550 Accounts receivable $ 2,100 Common stock ? Land $ 8,600 Retained earnings, Jan.1 $ 3,300 Revenue $ 10,100 Expenses $ 7,550 Based on the above information, what is the balance of Common Stock for Grayson Company?

Answers

Answer 1
Answer:

Answer:

The balance of Common Stock for Grayson Company is $8,300

Explanation:

For computing the common stock value, first we have to compute the ending retained earning balance which is shown below

= Beginning retained earning balance + revenues - expenses

= $3,300 + $10,100 - $7,550

= $5,850

Thus, the ending balance is $5,850

Now by applying the accounting equation we can compute the common stock value

Accounting equation is equals to

Assets = Liabilities + Equity

where,

Assets = Cash + Accounts receivable + Land

           = $5,000 + $2,100 + $8,600

           = $15,700

Liabilities = Accounts payable = $1,550

And, Equity = Ending Retained earnings balance + common stock

                   = $5,850 + common stock

Now, apply the above accounting equation which is shown below:

$15,700 = $1,550 + $5,850 + common stock

$15,700 = $7,400 + common stock

So, common stock = $8,300

Hence, the balance of Common Stock for Grayson Company is $8,300


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Answers

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What is the present value of a $500 payment received at the end of each of the next five years, worth to you today at the appropriate discount rate of 6 percent? $1,105 $1,850 $2,106 $2,778

Answers

Answer:

PV= $2,106.18

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Annual payment= $500

Number of periods= 5 years

Interest rate= 6%

To calculate the present value, first, we need to determine the future value:

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= annual payment

FV= {500*[(1.06^5) - 1]} / 0.06

FV= $2,818.55

Now, the present value:

PV= FV/(1+i)^n

PV= 2,818.55/1.06^5

PV= $2,106.18

Final answer:

The present value of a $500 payment received at the end of each of the next five years at an appropriate discount rate of 6 percent is approximately $2,106.

Explanation:

The question you asked involves the concept of calculating the present value of a series of future payments, also known as an annuity. The present value of an annuity can be determined using the formula:

PV = PMT * [(1 - (1 + r)^-n)/r]

where 'PV' is the present value, 'PMT' is the periodic payment, 'r' is the discount rate (as a decimal), and 'n' is the number of periods.

Plugging in the values from your question we get:

PV = 500 * [(1 - (1 + 0.06)^-5) /0.06]

This will give us the present value of the cash flows. Thus, the present value for a $500 payment received at the end of each of the next five years, worth to you today at the appropriate discount rate of 6 percent is $2,106.

Learn more about Present Value here:

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g On January 1 the company had office supplies costing $2,700 recorded as an asset. During the year $9,600 of office supplies were purchased and recorded as an asset, but the company did not make any journal entries to record the use of supplies during the year. The physical count on December 31 revealed that supplies of $3,100 were remaining. What adjusting entry would be necessary on December 31

Answers

Answer:

Debit Supplies expense    $9200

Credit Supplies account     $9200

Explanation:

The adjustment required is for the recognition of supplies used. When supplies are purchased, Debit Supplies account, credit cash or accounts payable. On use of supplies, Debit Supplies expense, credit Supplies account

The movement in the balance of supplies at the start and end of a period is as a result of usage and purchases. While usage reduces the balance in supplies, purchases increases the balance. This may be expressed mathematically as  

Opening balance + purchases - units used = closing balance  

$2,700 + $9,600 - Units used = $3,100

Units used = $2,700 + $9,600 - $3,100

= $9,200

A company has total fixed costs of $180,000 and a contribution margin ratio of 30%. How much sales are necessary to break even? a) $540,000
b) $600,000
c) $54,000
d) $126,000

Answers

Answer:

b) $600,000

Explanation:

The break-even sales can be regarded as sales value in which the result makes the firm to report zero profit.

Total fixed costs was given from the question as ( $180,000)

The Contribution margin ratio was give from the question as ( 30%)= 0.3

✓break even point can be calculated as ratio of Total fixed costs to Contribution margin ratio. This can be expressed as

break even point=[Total fixed costs ]/ [ Contribution margin ratio.]

Substitute,

break even point= [ $180,000]/ [0.3]

=$600,000

Is cost minimization equivalent or identical the concept of product maximization. True of False. Explain

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Given a certain production level, cost minimization is equal to product maximization. Cost minimization refers to the production level where average total cost per unit is lowest. On the other hand, production maximization refers to maximizing product output given certain restraints, e.g. amount of raw materials, number of labor hours, etc. Product maximization basically refers to the efficiency of production.

If someone can achieve product maximization and cost minimization, they should be maximizing profit.

Rooney Company established a predetermined variable overhead cost rate at $9.40 per direct labor hour. The actual variable overhead cost rate was $8.40 per hour. The planned level of labor activity was 74,900 hours of labor. The company actually used 79,900 hours of labor. Required Determine the total flexible budget variable overhead cost variance and indicate the effect of the variance by selecting favorable (F) or unfavorable (U). (Select "None" if there is no effect (i.e., zero variance).)

Answers

Answer:

$32,900 favorable

Explanation:

The computation of the total flexible budget variable overhead cost variance is shown below:

= Total budgeted overhead cost - actual budgeted overhead cost

where,

Total budgeted overhead cost is

= $9.40 × 74,900 hours

= $704,060

And, the actual budgeted overhead cost is

= $8.40 × 79,900 hours

= $671,160

So, the total flexible budget variable overhead cost variance is

= $704,060 - $671,160

= $32,900 favorable

Since the standard cost is greater than the actual cost so it would have favorable variance

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